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Class 9 Biology Chapter 6 Evolution MCQ with Answers – Complete Study Guide
Evolution is one of the most concept-heavy chapters in CBSE Class 9 Biology, and MCQs form a significant portion of board exams and competitive entrance tests. Understanding origin of life theories, Darwinian evolution, and the Hardy-Weinberg principle requires clarity—not cramming. This page offers 30 carefully curated multiple-choice questions spanning easy, medium, and hard difficulty levels, with detailed explanations for every answer. Each MCQ is aligned with the 2024–25 NCERT syllabus. Whether you're preparing for your half-yearly exam or sharpening your competitive edge, this quiz will sharpen your conceptual grip and boost confidence. Practice all three difficulty tiers, learn MCQ-time-management tricks, and discover common trap options examiners love to set. Start a 3-day free trial at cbsetutor.ai to unlock AI-powered personalized feedback on every quiz attempt.
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Start 3-day free trial →Why MCQs Dominate the New CBSE Pattern
The 2024–25 CBSE Class 9 Biology syllabus places heavy emphasis on multiple-choice questions, especially in the objective sections of half-yearly and annual exams. MCQs test not just recall, but conceptual understanding, application, and logical reasoning. For a chapter like Evolution, which involves historical theories (Lamarck vs. Darwin), mathematical principles (Hardy-Weinberg), and real-world evidence (fossils, homologous structures), MCQs are ideal for filtering confusion. A single-option MCQ forces you to evaluate why three alternatives fail—building deeper insight than simple definition-based questions. Furthermore, competitive exams like NEET (which many Class 9 students aim for) rely almost entirely on MCQ format. Mastering Evolution MCQs now equips you with both board-exam readiness and long-term competitive foundation. The new CBSE pattern allocates ~40% of marks to objective questions in Science, making MCQ proficiency non-negotiable. Each MCQ in this guide mimics real board patterns: single correct answer, plausible distractors, and focus on conceptual application rather than trivial facts.
10 Easy MCQs – Build Your Foundation
**Q1.** Which scientist is credited with the theory of natural selection?
(A) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
(B) Charles Darwin
(C) August Weismann
(D) Hugo de Vries
**Ans:** (B) Charles Darwin
**Why:** Darwin's *On the Origin of Species* (1859) formally introduced natural selection as the mechanism of evolution.
**Q2.** What does 'evolution' mean in a biological context?
(A) Development of an individual organism
(B) Gradual change in inherited traits of populations over generations
(C) Adaptation to seasonal changes
(D) Growth from childhood to adulthood
**Ans:** (B) Gradual change in inherited traits of populations over generations
**Why:** Evolution refers to population-level genetic change over time, not individual development (ontogeny).
**Q3.** Which of the following is evidence for evolution?
(A) Homologous structures
(B) Vestigial organs
(C) Fossil records
(D) All of the above
**Ans:** (D) All of the above
**Why:** Multiple independent lines of evidence (anatomy, embryology, paleontology) converge on evolutionary theory.
**Q4.** What are vestigial organs?
(A) Organs that are growing in size
(B) Organs that have lost most or all of their original function
(C) Organs unique to humans
(D) Organs present only in plants
**Ans:** (B) Organs that have lost most or all of their original function
**Why:** Examples include the human appendix and coccyx, which suggest common ancestry with functional-tailed vertebrates.
**Q5.** The Hardy-Weinberg principle assumes that allele frequencies remain constant if:
(A) Mutations occur frequently
(B) There is no natural selection, mutation, migration, or random genetic drift
(C) All organisms reproduce asexually
(D) The population size is very small
**Ans:** (B) There is no natural selection, mutation, migration, or random genetic drift
**Why:** The principle is a null hypothesis; deviations from it indicate evolutionary forces at work.
**Q6.** Which of the following organisms shows homology in the pentadactyl limb?
(A) Humans and whales only
(B) Humans, whales, bats, and horses
(C) Birds and reptiles only
(D) Fish and amphibians only
**Ans:** (B) Humans, whales, bats, and horses
**Why:** Five-digit limb structure across diverse vertebrates indicates common ancestry despite different functions (walking, swimming, flying).
**Q7.** Who proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics?
(A) Charles Darwin
(B) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
(C) Gregor Mendel
(D) Ernst Mayr
**Ans:** (B) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
**Why:** Lamarck (early 1800s) believed traits acquired during an organism's lifetime could be passed to offspring—now disproven.
**Q8.** The age of fossils is typically determined by which method?
(A) Visual inspection
(B) Radioactive dating (radiometric dating)
(C) Measuring fossil size
(D) Counting rock layers only
**Ans:** (B) Radioactive dating (radiometric dating)
**Why:** Carbon-14 and other isotope decay rates provide absolute age estimates; stratigraphic dating gives relative ages.
**Q9.** Which statement about natural selection is correct?
(A) It always leads to increased complexity
(B) It favours traits that increase reproductive success in a given environment
(C) It requires conscious effort by organisms
(D) It acts only on dominant traits
**Ans:** (B) It favours traits that increase reproductive success in a given environment
**Why:** Fitness is measured by reproductive output; selection is non-random but not goal-directed.
**Q10.** Analogous structures are:
(A) Structurally similar, with common evolutionary origin
(B) Structurally different but serve similar functions (e.g., bat wing and insect wing)
(C) Only found in extinct species
(D) Proof that evolution does not occur
**Ans:** (B) Structurally different but serve similar functions (e.g., bat wing and insect wing)
**Why:** Analogous structures show convergent evolution—similar adaptive solutions in unrelated lineages.
10 Medium MCQs – Test Deeper Understanding
**Q11.** In the Hardy-Weinberg equation (p² + 2pq + q² = 1), what do p and q represent?
(A) Genotype frequencies
(B) Allele frequencies for a two-allele system
(C) Phenotype ratios
(D) Mutation rates
**Ans:** (B) Allele frequencies for a two-allele system
**Why:** p and q are frequencies of two alleles at a locus; p² and q² are homozygote frequencies; 2pq is heterozygote frequency.
**Q12.** A population has allele frequencies: A = 0.6 and a = 0.4. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the expected frequency of Aa heterozygotes?
(A) 0.24
(B) 0.36
(C) 0.48
(D) 0.64
**Ans:** (C) 0.48
**Why:** Heterozygote frequency = 2pq = 2(0.6)(0.4) = 0.48 or 48%.
**Q13.** Which of the following is NOT a condition for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
(A) Large population size
(B) Directed mutation in a specific direction
(C) Random mating
(D) No gene flow (migration)
**Ans:** (B) Directed mutation in a specific direction
**Why:** The principle requires *no* mutation; even random mutations violate equilibrium. Directed mutations do not occur naturally.
**Q14.** Darwin's finches in the Galápagos Islands provide evidence for:
(A) Inheritance of acquired traits
(B) Adaptive radiation and natural selection
(C) Spontaneous generation
(D) Extinction without speciation
**Ans:** (B) Adaptive radiation and natural selection
**Why:** Different finch beak sizes adapted to different food sources (seeds, insects) on different islands—classic example of adaptive radiation.
**Q15.** Which statement correctly compares Lamarck's and Darwin's theories?
(A) Both rejected inheritance of traits
(B) Lamarck believed in use/disuse; Darwin emphasized natural selection
(C) Darwin's theory has been fully disproven
(D) Both theories are equally supported by modern evidence
**Ans:** (B) Lamarck believed in use/disuse; Darwin emphasized natural selection
**Why:** Lamarck: acquired traits inherited. Darwin: heritable variation + differential survival. Modern genetics supports Darwin's mechanism.
**Q16.** A gene pool showing allele frequency shift from p = 0.7 to p = 0.6 over one generation in a large, randomly mating population with no migration suggests:
(A) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
(B) Mutation occurred
(C) Natural selection is acting
(D) Genetic drift is occurring
**Ans:** (C) Natural selection is acting
**Why:** In a large population, random drift is negligible; frequency change indicates differential fitness (natural selection).
**Q17.** Homologous structures in different species indicate:
(A) Convergent evolution
(B) Common ancestry and divergent evolution
(C) Independent mutations
(D) Artificial selection by humans
**Ans:** (B) Common ancestry and divergent evolution
**Why:** Structural similarity (e.g., mammal forelimbs) inherited from a common ancestor, modified for different functions.
**Q18.** If a mutation increases an allele's frequency from 0.1 to 0.15 in a small population over one generation, this is primarily due to:
(A) Natural selection
(B) Genetic drift
(C) Gene flow
(D) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
**Ans:** (B) Genetic drift
**Why:** In small populations, random sampling errors (drift) can shift allele frequencies without selection pressure.
**Q19.** Which of the following best explains why antibiotic resistance in bacteria evolves rapidly?
(A) Bacteria consciously adapt to antibiotics
(B) Mutations create resistance; antibiotic kills non-resistant bacteria; resistant alleles increase in frequency
(C) Antibiotics directly cause beneficial mutations
(D) Resistance is an acquired trait inherited by offspring
**Ans:** (B) Mutations create resistance; antibiotic kills non-resistant bacteria; resistant alleles increase in frequency
**Why:** Classic natural selection: variation exists (mutations); environment filters (antibiotics); survivors reproduce.
**Q20.** The primordial atmosphere likely contained:
(A) High O₂, low N₂
(B) CH₄, NH₃, H₂O, H₂
(C) CO₂ only
(D) O₃ and O₂ in high concentrations
**Ans:** (B) CH₄, NH₃, H₂O, H₂
**Why:** Miller-Urey experiments (1952) simulated early Earth's reducing atmosphere; these gases are precursors to organic molecules.
10 Hard / Assertion-Reason MCQs – Master the Exam Pattern
**Q21.**
**Assertion (A):** Genetic variation is essential for natural selection to act on a population.
**Reason (R):** Without variation, all individuals have identical fitness, and no trait can be favoured over another.
(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) A is false; R is true
**Ans:** (A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
**Why:** Selection requires heritable variation; identical genotypes = identical fitness = no selection. R directly explains why A is true.
**Q22.**
**Assertion (A):** A population with allele frequencies p = 0.5, q = 0.5 has genotype frequencies of 0.25 AA, 0.5 Aa, 0.25 aa under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
**Reason (R):** The Hardy-Weinberg equation applies regardless of population size or mating patterns.
(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) A is false; R is true
**Ans:** (C) A is true; R is false
**Why:** A is correct (0.5² = 0.25, 2 × 0.5 × 0.5 = 0.5, 0.5² = 0.25). But R is false—H-W requires large populations and random mating.
**Q23.**
**Assertion (A):** Vestigial organs like the human tailbone suggest evolution from tailed ancestors.
**Reason (R):** Vestigial organs retain structural similarity to functional homologous organs in other species and are developmental remnants.
(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) Both A and R are false
**Ans:** (A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
**Why:** Vestigial organs (coccyx, appendix) mirror functional structures in related species (tails in primates, caecum in herbivores), supporting common descent.
**Q24.**
**Assertion (A):** Antibiotic resistance in bacteria demonstrates natural selection acting in real time.
**Reason (R):** Non-resistant bacteria die under antibiotic pressure; resistant mutants survive and reproduce, increasing allele frequency.
(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) A is false; R is true
**Ans:** (A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
**Why:** A observational fact; R explains the mechanism (differential survival and reproduction of fit variants).
**Q25.**
**Assertion (A):** Analogous structures (e.g., bird wings and insect wings) are evidence AGAINST common ancestry.
**Reason (R):** Analogous structures arise through convergent evolution when unrelated organisms adapt to similar environments.
(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) Both A and R are false
**Ans:** (B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
**Why:** A is true (analogous ≠ homologous), but R explains how analogy arises—not a logical reason against common descent. Homologous structures (limbs) remain evidence FOR common ancestry.
**Q26.**
**Assertion (A):** The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated that organic molecules could form spontaneously under early Earth conditions.
**Reason (R):** They exposed a mixture of CH₄, NH₃, H₂O, and H₂ to electrical discharges and UV radiation, detecting amino acids in the resulting broth.
(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) Both A and R are false
**Ans:** (A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
**Why:** Experiment validated abiogenesis hypothesis—prebiotic chemistry could generate building blocks for life without biological catalysts.
**Q27.**
**Assertion (A):** Random genetic drift causes allele frequency changes more rapidly in small populations than large ones.
**Reason (R):** Small populations experience stronger sampling effects because each individual's genes represent a larger proportion of the gene pool.
(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) A is false; R is true
**Ans:** (A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
**Why:** Drift variance ∝ 1/(2Ne); smaller Ne amplifies random change. Each gamete's impact on future generations is inversely proportional to population size.
**Q28.**
**Assertion (A):** Lamarck's theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics has been completely rejected by modern genetics.
**Reason (R):** Experiments show that traits acquired during an organism's lifetime (e.g., increased muscle from exercise) are not passed to offspring in Mendelian patterns.
(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) A is false; R is true
**Ans:** (C) A is true; R is false
**Why:** A is correct (Lamarckism disproven). But R is incomplete—epigenetics shows some environmental effects on gene expression *can* be heritable, though not Lamarckian.
**Q29.**
**Assertion (A):** In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if allele A has frequency 0.8, the frequency of homozygous recessive (aa) individuals is 0.04.
**Reason (R):** Under equilibrium, q = 0.2 (where q is the frequency of recessive allele a), so frequency of aa = q² = (0.2)² = 0.04.
(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) Both A and R are false
**Ans:** (A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
**Why:** If p = 0.8, then q = 1 − 0.8 = 0.2; aa frequency = (0.2)² = 0.04. R correctly derives A.
**Q30.**
**Assertion (A):** Fossil records showing intermediate species between ancient and modern forms support the theory of gradual evolution.
**Reason (R):** Transitional fossils (e.g., Archaeopteryx between dinosaurs and birds) demonstrate step-wise morphological change, validating Darwin's prediction of evolutionary continuity.
(A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true; R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true; R is false
(D) A is false; R is true
**Ans:** (A) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A
**Why:** Transitional fossils are powerful evidence for gradual evolution; Archaeopteryx shows features of both dinosaurs (teeth, claws, tail) and birds (feathers, wings).
Common Trap Options – What Examiners Want You to Miss
Evolution MCQs are deliberately crafted to exploit common misconceptions. Here are the traps to dodge:
**Trap 1: Confusing Evolution with Individual Development**
Wrong: "Evolution is how an organism grows from a baby to an adult."
Right: Evolution is population-level genetic change over generations, not ontogenetic development.
**How to avoid:** Remember: evolution operates on *populations*, not individuals. A single organism does not evolve during its lifetime.
**Trap 2: Treating Acquired Traits as Heritable**
Wrong: "Lamarck was right; if a blacksmith develops strong arms, his children will inherit strength."
Right: Acquired traits are not inherited in Mendelian systems. Genes—not phenotypes—pass to offspring.
**How to avoid:** Use the "cloning test": if you clone an athlete's DNA, the clone won't automatically be fit without training. No Lamarckian inheritance.
**Trap 3: Confusing Homology with Analogy**
Wrong: "Bird wings and insect wings are homologous."
Right: Both are wings (analogous function), but structurally different—different embryonic origin (bird: forelimb; insect: exoskeleton). Homologous = same structure, different function (e.g., human arm, bat wing, whale flipper).
**How to avoid:** Ask: "Same structure, different function?" → Homology. "Different structure, same function?" → Analogy.
**Trap 4: Misinterpreting Hardy-Weinberg as a Law of Evolution**
Wrong: "Hardy-Weinberg proves evolution doesn't happen."
Right: H-W is a *null model*. Deviations FROM equilibrium indicate evolutionary forces (selection, drift, mutation, migration).
**How to avoid:** H-W ≠ no evolution. It's the baseline. Evolution = deviation from H-W.
**Trap 5: Assuming Natural Selection Always Increases Fitness**
Wrong: "Selection always makes organisms more complex or faster."
Right: Selection favours traits that increase *reproductive success in that specific environment*. Complexity ≠ fitness. A bacterium is simpler but reproductively successful.
**How to avoid:** Fitness = reproductive output, not complexity. Selection is pragmatic, not goal-directed.
**Trap 6: Confusing Genetic Drift with Small Mutations**
Wrong: "Drift is when small mutations cause slow change."
Right: Drift is random *sampling error* in small populations, regardless of mutation rate. A neutral allele can drift to fixation.
**How to avoid:** Drift ∝ 1/(population size), not mutation rate. "Random" and "undirected" are keys to drift.
**Trap 7: Assuming All Fossils Are Transitional**
Wrong: "Every fossil between Species A and Species B proves gradual evolution."
Right: Fossils are snapshots of time; gaps exist due to incomplete preservation. We see evolutionary patterns, not all intermediate stages.
**How to avoid:** Fossil record *supports* evolution despite gaps; gaps don't disprove it. Transitional forms (Archaeopteryx, Tiktaalik) are bonus evidence.
**Trap 8: Misreading Hardy-Weinberg Math**
Wrong: "If p = 0.6, then AA frequency is 0.6."
Right: If p = 0.6 (frequency of allele A), then AA frequency = p² = 0.36.
**How to avoid:** Allele frequency ≠ genotype frequency. Always square/multiply to convert: p² (AA), q² (aa), 2pq (Aa).
**Trap 9: Assuming Vestigial Organs Have *No* Function**
Wrong: "The appendix has no function, so it's useless."
Right: Vestigial organs may retain minor roles (appendix: immune function in herbivores; coccyx: muscle attachment). They're *reduced* in function, not absent.
**How to avoid:** Vestigial = reduced from ancestral function, not completely non-functional. Evidence of evolutionary reduction, not irrelevance.
**Trap 10: Conflating 'No Evidence' with 'Disproved'**
Wrong: "We haven't directly observed evolution, so it's unproven."
Right: Evolution is observed via fossil records, antibiotic resistance, Darwin's finches, genetic comparison—multiple independent lines of evidence converge.
**How to avoid:** Direct observation ≠ only valid evidence. Historical sciences (geology, astronomy) use indirect but powerful evidence.
MCQ Time-Management Strategy for Exams
Scoring well on Evolution MCQs isn't just about knowledge—it's about strategic time allocation. Here's a battle-tested approach for a 30-question, 45-minute MCQ block:
**Phase 1: Warm-Up (0–8 min) – Grab Easy Wins**
Scan all 30 questions and answer the 8–10 *obvious* ones first (e.g., "Who proposed natural selection?" or "What is evolution?"). These take 30 seconds each. You'll accumulate ~10 marks with zero mental friction, building confidence. Skip any question that requires calculation or deep reasoning.
**Phase 2: Structured Attempt (8–35 min) – Medium & Hard**
Now attack medium-difficulty questions. For each:
1. Read the question stem carefully—underline the key clause (e.g., "which is NOT", "assumes", "indicates").
2. Cover the options mentally; predict your answer.
3. Scan the four options; if your prediction matches one, verify it doesn't contradict the stem.
4. For assertion-reason MCQs, evaluate A and R independently *first*, then their logical link.
5. Spend max. 1.5 minutes per question. If stuck, flag and move.
**Phase 3: Hard Questions (35–42 min) – Calculated Guessing**
Reserve the last 3 minutes for tough items you flagged. For a question offering Hardy-Weinberg math or a tricky trap:
- **If numeric:** Rough-check your algebra against the answer options; eliminate obviously wrong magnitudes.
- **If conceptual:** Use elimination—cross out options violating fundamental principles (e.g., "Can evolution occur without variation?" No → eliminate options claiming otherwise).
- **If unsure:** Don't leave blank. A 25% random guess beats zero.
**Phase 4: Final Review (42–45 min) – Sanity Check**
With 3 minutes left, glance over answers you're least confident about. Re-read the stem *one more time*—you may spot a negation ("NOT", "except") you missed. For assertion-reason, double-check the logical link (both true but unrelated → answer (B)).
**Red Flags During the Exam:**
- **"Always" / "Never" statements** → Almost always false in biology. Evolution has exceptions and edge cases.
- **Phrase like "must" or "will"** → Overconfident language. Look for softer alternatives ("likely", "tends to").
- **Numbers that seem round** → 0.5, 0.25, 0.04 in Hardy-Weinberg questions are often correct; they're derived from squared/doubled fractions.
- **Verbatim NCERT wording** → Likely correct; non-textbook phrasing raises doubt.
**Mental Stamina:**
Evolution is abstract; avoid decision fatigue. After ~20 questions, take a 10-second breath (look away from paper). Refresh your mind before the final push.
**Practice Protocol:**
To master this strategy, solve 3 full 30-question Evolution MCQ sets under strict time limits. Simulate exam conditions: silent room, clock visible, no references. Log the time per question; identify bottleneck topics (e.g., Hardy-Weinberg math—practice separately). By the third set, your average time per question should drop from 2 min to 1–1.2 min without sacrificing accuracy.
Key Formulas & Quick Reference for Evolution MCQs
Bookmark these formulas and concepts—they appear in ~60% of board-exam Evolution MCQs:
**Hardy-Weinberg Equations:**
- Allele frequencies: p + q = 1 (where p = frequency of dominant allele A; q = frequency of recessive allele a)
- Genotype frequencies: p² + 2pq + q² = 1
- p² = frequency of AA (homozygous dominant)
- 2pq = frequency of Aa (heterozygous)
- q² = frequency of aa (homozygous recessive)
**Example Calculation:**
If p = 0.7, then q = 0.3.
- AA frequency = (0.7)² = 0.49
- Aa frequency = 2(0.7)(0.3) = 0.42
- aa frequency = (0.3)² = 0.09
- Check: 0.49 + 0.42 + 0.09 = 1.00 ✓
**Conditions for Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium (none can be violated):**
1. No mutation
2. No natural selection (all genotypes have equal fitness)
3. No gene flow (migration)
4. Large population size (no genetic drift)
5. Random mating (no sexual selection, inbreeding, or assortative mating)
**Key Evolutionary Terms:**
- **Variation:** Differences in heritable traits within a population.
- **Fitness:** Number of viable offspring an organism produces (not strength or health).
- **Adaptation:** Trait that increases fitness in a specific environment.
- **Homologous structures:** Same origin, different function (bat wing = human arm = whale flipper).
- **Analogous structures:** Different origin, same function (bird wing ≠ insect wing, but both fly).
- **Vestigial organs:** Reduced, once-functional structures (appendix, tailbone in humans).
- **Genetic drift:** Random change in allele frequency, stronger in small populations.
- **Gene flow:** Movement of alleles between populations via migration.
**Evidence for Evolution:**
1. Fossil records (transitional forms, dating)
2. Comparative anatomy (homologous structures)
3. Embryology (similar developmental stages across vertebrates)
4. Molecular genetics (DNA/protein similarity across species)
5. Biogeography (species distribution, Darwin's finches)
6. Direct observation (antibiotic resistance, artificial selection)
**Critical Distinction:**
- **Lamarckism:** Acquired traits inherited. *Disproven.*
- **Darwinism:** Heritable variation + natural selection = evolution. *Supported.*
- **Hardy-Weinberg:** Null model for evolution. Equilibrium = no evolution; deviation = evolution happening.
**Radioactive Dating (Carbon-14 Example):**
- Half-life of C-14 ≈ 5,730 years.
- After 1 half-life: 50% of C-14 remains.
- After 2 half-lives: 25% remains.
- After 3 half-lives: 12.5% remains.
- Used for dating fossils ≤ ~50,000 years old.
Stamp these into memory: they're your lifelines on exam day.